Estimating ATM Option Prices

I work through a well-known approximation of the Black–Scholes price of at-the-money (ATM) options.

A well-known approximation for the Black–Scholes price of an at-the-money (ATM) call or put is

C=P0.4SσT,(1) C = P \approx 0.4 S \sigma \sqrt{T}, \tag{1}

where CC and PP are the call and put prices respectively, SS is the stock price, σ\sigma is the stock’s volatility, and TT is the time to expiry. To my knowledge, this approximation is from (Brenner & Subrahmanyan, 1988). The goal of this post is to derive Equation 11 myself.

Consider the Black–Scholes price for a call option:

C=SN(d1)KerTN(d2),d1=1σT[log(S/K)+[r+(1/2)σ2]T],d2=d1σT,(2) \begin{aligned} C &= S N (d_1) - K e^{-r T} N(d_2), \\ d_1 &= \frac{1}{\sigma \sqrt{T}} \left[ \log(S/K) + \left[ r + (1/2) \sigma^2 \right] T \right], \\ d_2 &= d_1 - \sigma \sqrt{T}, \end{aligned} \tag{2}

where KK is the strike price, rr is the interest rate, and N(x)N(x) is the cumulative distribution function (CDF) of the standard normal distribution. If the option is ATM, then S=KerTS = K e^{-rT}, and we can write the call as:

C=S[N(d1)N(d2)].(3) C = S \left[ N (d_1) - N(d_2) \right]. \tag{3}

Next, if we assume that r=0r = 0, then d1d_1 and d2d_2 simplify to

d1=(1/2)σT,d2=d1.(4) \begin{aligned} d_1 &= (1/2) \sigma \sqrt{T}, \\ d_2 &= -d_1. \end{aligned} \tag{4}

This appears to be a simple form, but the CDF is too complicated for quick calculations. So let’s approximate it with a first-order Taylor expansion. Note that the Maclaurin series of N(x)N(x) is

N(x)=N(0)+N(0)x+N(0)x22+N(0)x33+(5) N(x) = N(0) + N^{\prime}(0) x + \frac{N^{\prime\prime}(0) x^2}{2} + \frac{N^{\prime\prime}(0) x^3}{3} + \dots \tag{5}

So we will linearly approximate N(x)N(x) with just the first two terms. In the case of ATM options, this is justified if neither σ\sigma nor T\sqrt{T} is too large, since these terms define d1d_1 and d2d_2. In practice, however, I think σ\sigma and T\sqrt{T} can both be relatively large. For example, when the annualized volatility σ\sigma is 100%100\% and the time to expiry is T=1T = 1 year, the ATM value for d1d_1 is 0.50.5 (Equation 44), and the relative error between N(d1)N(d_1) and the first-order Taylor approximation of N(d1)N(d_1) is roughly 1%1\% (Figure 11). If you want to quickly price an ATM option, this seems like an acceptable error.

Figure 1. The CDF of the normal distribution N(x)N(x) (curved blue line), plotted against the first-order Taylor approximation of N(x)N(x) (straight red line). The values used are S=100S=100, T=1T=1, r=0r=0, and σ=1\sigma=1. Then KK was chosen such that S=KerTS = K e^{-rT}, which here is just K=SK=S. So d1=0.5d_1 = 0.5, and the relative error between the true value N(d1)N(d_1) and the first-order approximation is roughly 1%1\%. This is the relative error between red and blue lines at the point d1d_1 (dashed black line).

Now let’s plug the first two terms of the Taylor approximation into Equation 33. We get

C=S[(N(0)+N(0)d1)(N(0)+N(0)d2)]=S[N(0)d1N(0)d2]=SN(0)2d1.(6) \begin{aligned} C &= S \left[ \left(N(0) + N^{\prime}(0) d_1\right) - \left( N(0) + N^{\prime}(0) d_2 \right) \right] \\ &= S \left[ N^{\prime}(0) d_1 - N^{\prime}(0) d_2 \right] \\ &= S N^{\prime}(0) 2 d_1. \end{aligned} \tag{6}

This allows us to approximate the Black–Scholes price of the call as

C=SN(0)σT.(7) C = S N^{\prime}(0) \sigma \sqrt{T}. \tag{7}

Finally, we just need a good estimate of N(0)N^{\prime}(0). This is just the probability density function of the standard normal distribution evaluated at zero:

N(0)=12π0.4.(8) N^{\prime}(0) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \approx 0.4. \tag{8}

Finally, observe that if S=KerTS = K e^{-rT}, then P=CP = C by put-call parity. Putting this all together, we have

C=P0.4SσT(9) C = P \approx 0.4 S \sigma \sqrt{T} \tag{9}

as desired.

Example

At the time of this writing, Apple stock is trading at roughly $174.5$174.5. An option that expires next Friday (one full trading week) has a time-to-expiry of roughly

5/260=1/520.019.(10) 5/260 = 1/52 \approx 0.019. \tag{10}

Let’s approximate the square root of that as just 0.140.14. Finally, imagine we know that the implied volatility of an ATM Apple call is roughly 20%20\%. Then the ATM approximation of an Apple call is

0.4×$174.5×0.2×0.14$1.95.(11) 0.4 \times $174.5 \times 0.2 \times 0.14 \approx $1.95. \tag{11}

And this is pretty close to the last trade price for a call option with strike $175$175 expiring next Friday: $1.86$1.86. As usual, these data are from Yahoo! Finance.

  1. Brenner, M., & Subrahmanyan, M. G. (1988). A simple formula to compute the implied standard deviation. Financial Analysts Journal, 44(5), 80–83.